Re: XP HOME
- From: Troy Radtke <TRadtke@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: "'[ISAserver.org Discussion List]'" <isalist@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 12 Aug 2004 11:43:47 -0500
From mathforum.org:
http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.false.proof.html
And another:
"Proof": 2 = 1
a = b
a2 = ab
a2 - b2 = ab-b2
(a-b)(a+b) = b(a-b)
a+b = b
b+b = b
2b = b
2 = 1
What is wrong with this proof? Well, the fact that we got 2 = 1 is proof
that the method of getting the solution was not mathematically sound. (Read
a detailed discussion and find the fallacy in our archives.)
-----Original Message-----
From: Paul_Lemonidis@xxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:Paul_Lemonidis@xxxxxxxxxxx]
Sent: Thursday, August 12, 2004 11:36 AM
To: [ISAserver.org Discussion List]
Subject: [isalist] Re: XP HOME
http://www.ISAserver.org
If I remember correctly from my school days there is a very dodgy
mathematical proof that 1=2?
Thus if 1+1=2 it also stands to reason that since 1+2=3 that 1+1=3.
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