[geocentrism] Re: acceleration calcs attachment

  • From: Allen Daves <allendaves@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Sun, 4 May 2008 13:43:08 -0700 (PDT)

Paul,
The reason you and Phil are having such a hard time is that you thinf the fact 
that grav pulling all parts equaly and simoltanioulsy has any bearing 
whatsoever  t do with accelerations or inertia...your argument is assuming that 
how gravity works does or would affect how we detect inertial effects!? it does 
not, one has nothing to do with the other. Gravity and inertia have nothing to 
do with each other! So why you think that since gravity is pulling all parts 
equaly and simoltanioulsy has any bearing whatsoever on whether or not we can 
detect an acceleration/ inertial effect is quite humorous...one has nothing to 
do with the other ....gravity would have to determine inertia inorder to make 
that argument.....
you asked for:      entirely absent to this time -- of how a spring 
accelerometer is able to register acceleration when caused by gravity. wrong i 
have explained this in the past already so many times..???Just once I'd like to 
see him defend his position by explaining why he is rightrather than why his 
detractor is wrong.1. Gravity is not the cause of inertia period!. …however, 
Inertia is the observable change/ resistance to any motion (aka acceleration) 
The absence or presence of a gravitational feild is totaly irrelevant wrt 
motion & inertia. motion & inertia are not tied to nor are they even dependent 
upon gravity! That is why i am right!…The detection of an acceleration with a 
mass on a spring is affected by motion & the real "cause"  of inertia not 
gravity/inertia   !! that Paul is why I am right…….Period!….. What do you not 
understand now?! 

2. You assume it is my postion that must be defended ..mine reflects reality 
yours only imagines something other then what we observe! it is your postion 
which states things are somthing other then what we observe that must be 
defended..you have it backwards Paul the burden of proof and demonstration is 
on your argument not mine...mine takes what we observe as face value there is 
nothing for me to defend..You on the other hand suppose it is all just some 
illusion,,ok i will go with that when you can demonstrate it before you assume 
it is true......
Regaurdless of what gravity is or how gravity works inertial detection is not 
dependent on how gravity work! So even though we can say that gravity  pulls on 
all parts of the mass spring simoltaniously ..who cares Gravity is not the 
cause of inertia nor does it determine the detecion thereof!?  

The issue is.......Why we should or could not detect the acceleration of a mass 
in a free fall is 
 
I say that yes we should be able to detect the acceleration of the earth or any 
body in a orbit if the motion exist. further i assert a difference between real 
and relitive motions and state that the two are decernable and 
detectable....You say nay we cannot and should not expect to detect that 
acceleration... 
  
1... ......If there is not way to detect the earth’s acceleration around the 
sun in free fall (assuming that inertia is gravitationaly dependent) and grav 
is pulling any accelerometer & mass that we would use to observe equally to all 
parts then how does that same grav in that exact same inertial field create an 
observable and different acceleration with the tides?..You do agree the tides 
are observable and accelerated by the sun & moons inertial gravitational field 
ryt..?!......If it does then you can’t claim the acceleration in free fall cant 
be detected!( but then we would have a difficulty with the force calculations 
being continent with the amount of nessisary force to lift that much sea 
water.) If the tides are not accelerated by the sun/ moon inertial field then 
you have a big problem don’t you?.
 
 
2. How can you can have a detectable change in orientation wrt a body (in 
grav/inertial free fall) while not having a detectable acceleration wrt the 
same body.....Without that little bit of information ( a detectable change in 
orientation around another body) you cannot even claim that your body even has 
a orbit period!..... around anything real or relative............Without a 
detectable change in orientation you cant lay claim to any motion period real 
or relative...You say we can do so by looking at the background 
stars......Looking at the back ground stars (external of your frame of refer so 
as to give you frame of reference a reference frame) still does not tell you 
which one of all those things has any motion...Two bodies surrounded by a shell 
of stars do not constituent a orbit just because the back ground stars are 
moving wrt those two bodies...try it ..you need not have real or relative 
motion of those two bodies just because a shell of
 background stars has a relative motion wrt those two bodies....If you don’t 
know that you have a motion wrt another body then you can’t claim observable 
motion of the background stars as evidence for what is in question that you 
don’t know and are trying to figure out in the first place.Without a 
demonstratable orbit you cant claim that the orbit's acceleration is 
"hidden" due to it suposedly being in a free fall.....You must first show that 
a orbit exits in the first place, otherwise any two objects placed next to 
eachother could be said to orbit each other?......If the argument is real v 
relative motions are meaningless wrt each other as Fred Hoyle does then, so to 
is the argument against a absolute rest frame ..Why?... If real v relative 
motions are meaningless wrt each other then how can you use "relative motion" 
to argue against the possibility of an absolute rest frame thus absolute 
motion?..The axiom is itself self-defeating in that it
 declares itself as meaningless wrt the alternative.  If they are meaningless 
wrt each other then how can it be a valid argument against it?...... Lets go 
one step further ...so 1.how is the theory you employ in your explinations 
falseifable and 2. How does it support invalidity for something else when it 
can’t even demonstrate validity about itself? So now you all are back to square 
one....In a circular or elliptical orbit how do you know that there is ANY 
MOTION(orbital) at all, real or relative.  
 
3. It has been stated:A uniform gravitational field cannot change the 
orientation of a body, whatever shape it has.The change of direction of the 
Earth's gravitational field from one end to the other of, e.g., thespace 
shuttle, is neglible and will not keep the shuttle horizontal with respect to 
Earth - attitude
thrusters at the front or the back has to be employed.Your Diagrams in your 
last post i think we would agree would not have the same orientation to the 
gravitational field wrt each other?This is to say that the orientation of "a" 
will not be the same as the one in "b" and further that "b" is always changing 
wrt the grv/inertia field.
 
The point: Unlike a falling object wrt earth, (apple from tree...aka.....free 
fall) In a orbit you must have, need and cannot just consider the earth's 
gravitational/inertial feild to pull the apple toward the earth but you also 
need a secondary force (inertial) to keep the propensity for the satilite to 
fly off into space in such a way that those two "forces" acting against each 
other are in balance with each other so as to have a stable orbit. If the only 
field present was grav then what keeps the satellite in orbit from falling to 
the earth..we say..inertia...ah but inertia is gravity.............. so which 
grav field and from where is acting on the satellite in the opisite direction 
of the pull of the gravity coming from the earth?...Explain how a circular/ 
continuous arc/ elliptical orbit of a near star different from a circular/ 
continuous arc/ elliptical trajectory wrt a distant star..... inertia is the 
force of gravity acting on a body in GTR
 .... it is due to those inertial fields that we observably measure when we 
detect any accelerations ..How do we isolate the gravitational/ inertial field 
of a near body from all the others out there that supposedly cause the reaction 
(inertia) in the first place? If we do not isolate them from each other, then a 
body has the same orientation to those distant external inertial fields that 
cause inertia whether or not it is in a orbit. But, this begs the question, if 
those external inertial fields are the cause of inertia then how does the 
inertial field of the body that is being orbited prevent those fields from 
doing the same thing they do when a body is not in a orbit, particularly since 
those distant fields are supposedly the cause of the inertial reaction. If 
however on the other hand we claim that the inertial /gravitational field that 
creates the inertial effects only pertains to the "Inertial reference frame" 
such that the distant
 mass/grav/inertial fields do not significantly affect the inertial field of 
the "inertial reference frame" thus preventing the detection of the free fall 
in that inertial field/ ref frame.....Then what keeps the orbit of the bodies 
from collapsing in on each other?!........ If gravity is the force pulling both 
bodies toward each other then where is the other vector force ( gravity/ 
inertial force that causes the bodies to move away from each other) coming from 
to balance the motions so as to create a stable orbit?.. If the inertial field 
of the distance stars do not significantly affect the inertial state of the 
body in orbit (it’’s "inertial reference frame")then while gravity is pulling 
the two bodies toward each other how exactly is gravity also the source of the 
inertial momentum away from that body that supposedly is in balance with the 
pull from that body to create the orbit!? And if the inertial fields of distant 
bodies does affect the
 "inertial ref frame" so as to produce the inertial force that keeps the 
propensity of the orbiting body to move away from the body being orbited,...... 
then how are the inertial affects due to those distant inertial fields 
prevented from deomonstrating a detectable acceleration in orbit while at the 
same time providing the inertial force to keep the whole thing working? Does a 
straight line trajectory wrt thoes distant inertial feilds produce a different 
effect then when the trajectory is a arc? if not why would a orbit matter where 
or not we could detect changes wrt thoese exact same distant inertial feilds 
that clearly demonstrated detectable accelerations when not moving in a 
arc?.......whether or not a body is at rest or in motion it is the distant 
inertial fields that cause the detection of motion or acceleration in the first 
place. How exactly do you define a free fall and at what point do the inertial 
fields that create the inertial effects
 (detection of acceleration) and at the same time prevent it? Free fall not a 
detection of acceleration is by definition changes wrt those same exact distant 
inertial/ gravitational fields. If you do not isolate those fields from your 
inertial one you claim we are in free fall around then there is no logical 
reason why those distant fields would be prevented from giving us a detectable 
acceleration in large arc verse a small one? Here is what you are left with. 
explaining, how a orbit or continuous arc trajectory of the body wrt those 
distant inertial fields is any different then..... a continuous arc trajectory 
wrt those distant inertial fields?! Are you claiming that if the arc makes a 
complete circuit then the effects of inertia due to those distant inertial 
fields not felt?!... An Acceleration is a measure of the inertial effect (the 
change of the state of motion wrt any given body). It is changes wrt those 
distant grav/inertia fields that is
 supposedly the cause of inertia so how exactly does the size of the arc or 
shape of a bodies trajectory wrt those distant fields determine whether or not 
we can detect the inertial effects? 
 
The reasons given thus far have been based on the equivalence principle. , 
However in your last post you attempt to appeal to Newtonian 
dynamics?.............. 
A. Newton does not claim that a acceleration in free fall cannot be detected..
B. Newton did not give us the equivalence principle.. 
C. Newton accepted absolute motion and thus in Newtonian Dynamics motion & or 
the detection thereof is not dependent upon a/any inertial reference frames, 
real, imaginary or otherwise...Therefore, the fact that you assume any given 
inertial reference frame means nothing wrt the arguments before us....why? 
..because it is the nature of the relationship of Gravity, acceleration motion 
and inertia not any "ref frame" that would have to affect whether or not we 
could detect any such free fall accelerations......so Im not sure what your 
attempting to demonstration here with/about Newtonian dynamics and or any 
inertial reference frames Newton addresses. 
You say a orbit is in free fall and we know that we are in orbit because we can 
detect the change in orientation but the acceleration of that orbit cannot be 
detected.

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