[geocentrism] Re: Pre-Flood rain

  • From: Neville Jones <njones@xxxxxxxxx>
  • To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Tue, 2 Oct 2007 11:30:59 -0800

Allen,

You are away on one of your rants again.

Your claims are based upon the Bible being God's written word and therefore absolute truth. This is a fair position, but when I previously tried to highlight your position on the Bible being 100% truth, you claimed that had nothing to do with your argument. Yet in this posting again we see that it is vital to your argument.

There is "no indication" from the natural processes that we all observe all around us every day. Can I spell it out any clearer for you? The rivers flow into the sea, yet the sea is never full. Why is this? Because is evaporates, condenses and falls as rain, back onto the land. A very nice design, I would say, and I repeat that there is no reason that I can see, nor that you have supplied, why this has not happened since the first week of Creation.

That you have "outlined" a scientific reason to support your contention that it did not rain for 1,650 years from Creation to Flood, is nothing more than that, an "outline." Based upon assumption after assumption: size of the World, cosmic radiation, lack of impurities, people having no influence over the environment, ...

Your argument about being unable to seed clouds is not too convincing. We have plenty of rain almost every day, do we not? Without any need to seed clouds.

Finally, for reasons already given, I completely disagree with your last paragraph.

Neville
www.GeocentricUniverse.com


-----Original Message-----
From: allendaves@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Sent: Tue, 2 Oct 2007 09:56:31 -0700 (PDT)

Neville,
Me in blue..

----- Original Message ----
From: Neville Jones <njones@xxxxxxxxx>
To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Allen,

There is no indication..no indication?... from what?..from who? that the water cycle was not designed to operate as it now operates right from the beginning,?....I thought we were using God's descriptions of the world then?..If we are using science, then I have already outlined the scientific plausability of such a difference and why scientificaly.. just as the seasons would have operated right from the beginning, and will go on unto the end.
That kinda missis that whole point...... God's decriptions of the world then verse our assumtions about what the world was then..in any case if you are going to appeal to assumtions ....on a smaler world things would have for very practialy and scientifical reasons worked ver differntly particularly as it relates to rain ...particulaly sice the water cycle is based in part on the amount of availible water in the water cycle in the first place .....there is for a fact more water now in the water cycle then there was before the flood..."the fountins of the great deep opened"  ....

1,650 years has plenty to do with the question, since mankind would have had an influence on the environment and atmosphere during all of this time.
 
Ok so they did........ but in what way..did they have cars and powere plants and jet plans as we do today?... did they produce enouph polutents to seed the atmosphere...we cant even do that today without seninding up aircraft with specaly made seeding particles...?

Since you accept that scripture does not preclude rain before the Flood, I think it more realistic to assume this to be the case. but based on assumtions that have no bases in the scritpureal; text nor do they have any nesesity dicataed in science...so your assertion is at best more unfounded then the onw
 
This makes Philip's point about the rainbow then becoming a special sign all the more pertinent. yes very special cause no rain no rainbow.. a water cycle that had less water in it to cycle as well as a stonger more dense magfeild = no natural or artifical seeding= no clouds= no rain....is far more "scripturaly" and "scientificaly" consisntent with the evidence/ scripture, and requires far far less assumtions then some imaginary universal change in the molecular structure of the water molecule wich is itslef based on entirly unsuportable and unessisary assumtions about the pre-flood world to begin with......?

Neville


-----Original Message-----
From: allendaves@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Sent: Mon, 1 Oct 2007 16:53:40 -0700 (PDT)

Neville,

 

I donʼt know what the % of humidity would have been and there is no statement to that effect but the indication is that it was high...... what I am claiming that it is possible to have high humidity and no rain indefinitely, if there is insufficient particle seeding . This issue of seeding would hold true even today the only difference is the capacity of the mag field......As for pre flood world, i examine the conditions nessisary for rain based on what we know about clouds and rain even today. Within that body of knowledge there exist the possibility of a pre flood world (a different world, smaller world with a stronger magnetic field) that would preclude rain even with "to days physics" ..... The mechanisms I point out are considered observable even by MS ............Having said that, scripture nowhere states that it never rained before the flood, however it certainly could be considered to strongly imply that, particularly in the whole construct of the context in Gen 2- Gen 7:11which is outlining the condition of the world up to the flood ...in any case im just pointing out the feasability of that scenario...........I do not think it rained......... nor do i see room for rain in the context except that 1650 years passed by...but then the question becomes "what does the fact that 1650 years passed before it rained have to do with whether or not it rained if the conditions for rain did not exist for 1650 years....?


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