[geocentrism] Re: MS illogic

  • From: "philip madsen" <pma15027@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sun, 29 Apr 2007 19:09:36 +1000

  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Dr. Neville Jones 
  To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
  Sent: Sunday, April 29, 2007 8:08 AM
  Subject: [geocentrism] Re: MS illogic


  Philip,

  You state that, "If you can discount any part of the Bible, then it logically 
follows that you must discount all of it."

  Why?

  Because of logic.  If the bible is the Word of God, then no part of it can be 
in error. If any part is an error, then the book cannot be the word of God. The 
book would be no different from amy other good book from which people may 
deduce what is true or untrue. I cannot see God being so difficult.. In any 
case, if the old testament was so untrustworthy, surely Jesus would have warned 
us..  

  The Bible was not written in stone by God, it was put together by a group of 
men. Some writings were included, others (of equal antiquity) were rejected. 
This is a fact.

  Exactly true. Antiquity does not gaurrantee inspiration.  What possibly could 
gaurantee inspiration? God through Jesus in His word, and by the authority that 
Jesus passed onto certain men. 

  If you understand that division by zero is an operation that is undefined in 
mathematics, it does not mean that all of mathematics is wrong and should be 
discarded. Rather, you would gain an appreciation of which parts were sound and 
which needed some degree of caution.

  I accept that Neville.. This is why I appeal to people such as yourself who 
have such skills for help..  Sorry if I gave the impression that I opposed 
Mathmatics.. I would have failed all my electrical exams without it.  And I do 
still dabble..  I do separate it as a science from reality. 
  By the way I do not accept it as undefined. I accept 1 over zero  as a true 
mathmatical computation. But that it has no reality in the physical world. 


  The God shown to us by Christ in the "New Testament" is not the god of the 
Jews depicted in the "Old Testament." Yet God does not change. So which one is 
the right one?  

  The old testament was for guidance of a fallen people who had to wait for 
redemption, before they deserved the complete revelation. I think Robert would 
be able to explain this better. 

  What does Christ call the Jews in the Gospel of John? What do they call 
themselves in the "Old Testament?" The two answers are mutually exclusive. This 
is also a fact.
  Actually Jesus was referring to certain Jews, who had wandered from the true 
meaning of Scripture as promoted by the prophets. He himself came from the true 
Jews. The situation at His advent was almost a figure of .what is happening 
today when I reject the Novus Ordo Vatican..  He came then to punish this Novus 
Ordo of His time.  I feel that when He comes again the position will be 
similar..  as it is today..  

  Philip. 
  Best wishes,

  Neville.


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