[geocentrism] Re: Calendar query

  • From: Allen Daves <allendaves@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Sat, 2 Apr 2005 20:17:23 -0800 (PST)

1Peter 4:11. If any man speak, let him speak as the oracles of God;

Romans 3:4 Let GOD be true and Every man a Liar

Robert, your suggested logic is the same logic used by heliocentrist 
creationist with Geocentric scripture.

The text is very plain and very clear. There is no need to develop some 
contrived understanding when it plainly tells you the truth of the mater, 
unless you don?t like what it says and prefer someone elses interpretation over 
the plain text.

If you want to believe something hard enough you can believe it but there is NO 
ambiguity of the text here. This is not my opinion. If I have not spoken as the 
scriptures fine, point that out. If not, then any other meaning other than what 
it plainly says is just an attempt to apply your own interpretation to it. 
2Peter 1:20. Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any 
private interpretation.



I Corinthians 8:2. And if any man think that he knoweth anything, he knoweth 
nothing yet as he ought to know.

Allen

Robert Bennett <robert.bennett@xxxxxxx> wrote:Here's another solution that 
makes sense.

"three days and three nights", in Jewish terminology, did not necessarily
imply a full period of three actual days and three actual nights as in
modern English, but was simply a First Century colloquialism used to cover
any part of the first and third days.
The expression was always used with an equal number of days and nights; x
days and x nights, as though for emphasis.

Full discussion at:
http://www.answering-islam.org.uk/Gilchrist/jonah.html#three


RIP, JPII

Robert

> -----Original Message-----
> From: geocentrism-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
> [mailto:geocentrism-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx]On Behalf Of Cheryl
> Sent: Saturday, April 02, 2005 5:39 PM
> To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Calendar query
>
>
> I'm putting up an article on this subject that seems to have sensible
> answers to everything -- namely that the crucifixion occurred in
> AD 31 when
> there were two Sabbaths. The only reason this question would be
> important
> to answer is that precise conformance to prophecy and accuracy of
> the Bible
> is at stake. I have no doubts about either. I'm sure there's a correct
> explanation for what might appear to be a discrepancy. I'm not
> sure which
> it is, but the one below seems to make sense.
> Cheryl
>
>
>
>






Other related posts: