[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 349

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 9 Sep 2010 09:24:14 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (2 Messages)

1a.
Re: Understanding Property Dualism From: gabuddabout
2a.
Re: [C] Digest Number 347 From: iro3isdx

Messages

1a.

Re: Understanding Property Dualism

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Sep 8, 2010 5:15 pm (PDT)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, "walto" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
>
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@> wrote:
> >
> >
> > > SWM wrote:
> > >
> > > "everything in the universe is physical: some of it is also mental."
> >
>
> Stuart is right. That was a misattribution of something I said.
>
>
>
> > I'm wondering on what basis he choose this rather than "everything > in
> > the universe is mental: some of it is also physical."
> >
>
> The reason is that I believe that what I wrote is true (though I don't deny that it's controversial) while its converse that you suggest above as a substitute is quite obviously false, Spinoza, Fechner, and Galen Strawson notwithstanding.
>
> W

I (probably wrongly, so you tell me) used to think (haven't thought about it for a long time) that Spinoza's doctrine of mode parallelism might (might) be thought of as a version of a wedding of the correspondence and coherence theory of truth such that insofar as we have correspondence we assume a sort of parallelism and insofar as we have coherence, we have something like the mental mode being what it is, even though the Spinoza, like moderns, had some sort of identity theory when defining mind as the thought of the body, which does sound idealistic in one sense and downright modern in another.

Cheers,
Budd

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2a.

Re: [C] Digest Number 347

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Sep 8, 2010 10:11 pm (PDT)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Rajasekhar Goteti <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> responding to http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Wittrs/message/6277

> sekhar:
> What does the group say about this article?

It would have helped if you had provided a link to the article.

It appears to be:
http://www.nytimes.com/2010/09/05/books/review/Bickerton-t.html

I don't think you can easily separate language from culture.

Sure, in one sense language is a cultural artifact. However, our
ability to use language is biological. For that matter, our capacity
to be part of a culture is biological.

Deutscher seems to be particularly interested in whether grammar is
biological - presumably he is addressing some of Chomsky's claims. On
that, I agree with Deutscher that grammar is cultural, contrary to
Chomsky. But we shouldn't take that too far. Our biology surely
constrains the kind of grammar we are likely to use in our languages.

Regards,
Neil

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