Hello, we know that voltage drop across an inductance is given by V = Ldi/dt. --(1) Also, Impedance multiplied by the current, should give the volatge drop i.e V= 2*pi*f*L*i --(2) Can this imply, I can equate equations (1) and (2)? If not, under what conditions (1) and (2) can be applied? Thanks and regards, Jayaprakash. ===== Balachandran Jayaprakash Celestijnenlaan, 3/61, 3001, Heverlee, Leuven, Belgium. Mobile: +32-472-630120 __________________________________________________ Do You Yahoo!? Everything you'll ever need on one web page from News and Sport to Email and Music Charts http://uk.my.yahoo.com ------------------------------------------------------------------ To unsubscribe from si-list: si-list-request@xxxxxxxxxxxxx with 'unsubscribe' in the Subject field or to administer your membership from a web page, go to: //www.freelists.org/webpage/si-list For help: si-list-request@xxxxxxxxxxxxx with 'help' in the Subject field List archives are viewable at: //www.freelists.org/archives/si-list or at our remote archives: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/si-list/messages Old (prior to June 6, 2001) list archives are viewable at: http://www.qsl.net/wb6tpu