[SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
- From: Larry Smith <Larry.Smith@xxxxxxx>
- To: weirsp@xxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Mon, 22 Mar 2004 09:59:29 -0800
Chris - Steve has given you a good explanation below for why a VRM
appears inductive to the PDS. With a single pole roll off for the
transfer function of the VRM, the closed loop output impedance vs
frequency goes up at about 20 dB per decade, just like an inductor.
There is another explanation that may be more satisfying from a
circuits standpoint. A buck switching power supply basically connects
an inductor between some head voltage (i.e. 12V) and the output
voltage (~1.5V). We know that the current through the inductor is
governed by the equation V = L di/dt, and will ramp up or down
according to this formula. The voltage across the inductor may be 12
- 1.5 = 10.5V. Soon, the VRM is delivering more current than the load
wants and the output voltage rises. The control loop of the VRM
senses this and switches some FETs so that the inductor is now
connected between the output voltage and ground. This puts a reverse
1.5V across the inductor and the current ramps down until it is no
longer supplying the needs of the load. An output capacitor
integrates the current from the inductor and provides a smooth output
voltage at the desired level.
It is actually a little more complicated than this because there is a
"heartbeat" frequency for the VRM and the inductor is actually
switched on and off with a duty cycle such that the loop remains in
regulation. But this should give you some further insight into why
the output impedance of a VRM is inductive. It also gives you some
insight into the maximum di/dt that a VRM can deliver. It is easy to
calculate the minimum response time for the VRM to deliver a current
transient. For a well designed VRM, the inductor is sized so that the
inductor's response time with the given input and output voltages is
nearly the bandwidth of the loop as determined by the amplifier and
loop compensation components. As Steve indicates, the bandwidth of
the loop is usually about 1/5 of the heartbeat frequency. This is
necessary to keep the feedback loop stable.
In any case, the output impedance of the VRM is inductive. The
impedance of the equivalent inductance of a well designed VRM crosses
the target impedance near the bandwidth frequency of the regulation loop.
regards,
Larry Smith
Sun Microsystems
steve weir wrote:
> Chris, the closed loop transfer function gives the VRM its phase shift
> versus frequency.
>
> The VRM typically has multiple poles. One of the poles is to effect an
> integrator transfer function for very high DC gain, and another is either
> the open-loop transfer function of the error amplifier in a linear VRM, a
> single effective pole from a current mode SMPS, or two poles from the LC
> output filter in a voltage mode SMPS. Most SMPS have operated in current
> mode rather than voltage mode for the past twenty three years or so. The
> error amplifier does not have to be set-up this way, but this has proven
> very cheap and effective.
>
> The feedback loop must close the gain at 0dB while there is still phase
> margin to 180 degrees to prevent oscillation. A VRM usually approaches 0
> dB to within 5-10dB on a -2 slope, and then cuts back to a -1 slope to
> stably cross 0dB. At some point beyond 0 dB the phase can rapidly fall
> away to 180 degrees or more. This means that the impedance is on the
> complementary slope of +2, and then goes to +1 near 0dB where the phase
> will actually be more like 135 degrees than 90 degrees lagging as with a
> simple inductive characteristic. Where the decoupling network needs to
> transition from the VRM depends on how much greater the VRM open loop
> impedance is than the system target impedance.
>
> Many modern VRMs have bandwidths into the 100's of kHz, and some linear
> regulators even into the low MHz, particularly if they have to support the
> current generation of power thirsty processors. In an SMPS, the switching
> frequency sets the upper limit on frequency response. Clearly, the loop
> cannot effect average voltage changes in a single cycle. If we apply
> Nyquist, we are limited in the best case to Fsw/2. However, typically, the
> feedback loop closes at 1/5th the switching frequency or less.
>
> Steve.
> At 09:10 AM 3/22/2004 +0000, Chris Chalmers wrote:
>
>>Si List,
>>
>>Here's a question that has been burning my brain cells.
>>
>>The effective operating frequency for a Voltage Regulator
>>module in the PDS is from DC to a few hundred hertz. Then the
>> bulk capacitors take over from there to 1 MHz. The VRM becomes
>> inductive above a few hundred hertz. My question is, what makes
>> the VRM look inductive? Is it the package of the device that
>> is so inductive at 1MHz that the impedance begins to go above the
>> target system impedance or is it that the bandwidth of the error
>> amplifier inside is only in the hundred of kilohertz.
>>
>>If it is the error amplifier then why don't they increase the
>> bandwidth of it and reduce the inductance of the package to
>> reduce the need for bulk capacitance.
>>
>>Also if it is just the inductance of the package, if you put a
>> 1MHz sine wave through it (from the die to the point of load
>> would the 1MHz signal rise be slewed due to the inductance that
>> much?
>>
>>Thanks in advance
>>
>>Chris
>>
>>
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- Follow-Ups:
- [SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
- From: steve weir
- References:
- [SI-LIST] Moat and drawbridge
- From: Chris Chalmers
- [SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
- From: steve weir
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- » [SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
- » [SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
- [SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
- From: steve weir
- [SI-LIST] Moat and drawbridge
- From: Chris Chalmers
- [SI-LIST] Re: Inductance of VRM
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