[lit-ideas] (no subject)

  • From: Adriano Palma <Palma@xxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: "palma@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx" <palma@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Tue, 21 Feb 2017 12:41:01 +0000

Consider, which logic prohibits the  implication


X FOLLOWS FROM Y & X


? IF NONE, IS THERE
A counterexample?

If not the rule is logically valid or not?

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