John McCreery wrote: "If, on the other hand, we are aware that acts considered theft in one time and place may not be seen as such in other times and places, we cannot avoid the tangle of ethnographic and historical specifics, differing legal systems, cases and precedents into which such comparisons lead us." One can engage in an anthropological study of acts considered theft, and certainly such a study would reveal a wide variety of interesting differences. What would be assumed, however, is the identification of a moral quality that transcends historical and ethnographic, something that would allow for the identification of theft regardless of contingencies. Put differently, the only way John's analysis of theft through various ethnographic and historical specifics would be possible is if the moral case of 'theft' necessarily transcended those specifics. If the identification of 'theft' depended on historical and ethnographic contingencies, then there is no way John could know what to compare. Put more simply, how would John know what to do with the word 'theft' in a different language unless there were a universal quality belonging to the use of that word that allowed for translation? And if such a translation were possible, what is left of John's objection? Moral cases are always instantiated in both history and culture, and these instantiations are open to study by anthropologists. However, that there are moral cases is a subject of study that escapes anthropology and belongs properly to philosophy. (I would add theology but that is a different argument.) Sincerely, Phil Enns Yogyakarta, Indonesia ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html