[lit-ideas] Re: Tittles--a change of title

  • From: Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx>
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Tue, 10 Jun 2008 21:23:12 -0700

I wrote

That's why I say that as far as I can tell, psychology is much better suited to explain such things [Keegan's use of "Mommy whoop-whoop" and John's interpretation of it] than is philosophy.

John asked

Possibly, but why? Are there serious reasons to believe that psychologists have better explanations to offer?

I try to answer

All I can say here is that this is the kind of things psychologists might try to explain (inductive evidence), and not the kind of thing philosophers try to explain (intuition). That is, psychologists seem to be interested in why people behave as they do; philosophers in what it is they’re doing. (I’m really dissatisfied with what I just said but can’t think of a better way to say it.) Whether or not anyone accepts psychologists’ explanations of anything is another matter.

I think here of Chomsky’s devastating review of B. F. Skinner’s Verbal Behavior, in the journal Language. Who the scientist, who the philosopher?

Earlier I said

Yet apparently an explanation isn't wanted: what's wanted is a sorting of philosophical accounts into those that are compatible with it and those that aren't.

John responds

Excuse my imprecision. Let us reduce the problem to the philosophers named: Plato, Aristotle, Berkeley, Locke, Hume, and Donald Davidson, and, just for fun add Wittgenstein. That gives us a pretty good spread of classical, early modern, and 20th century philosophers. Let us say, further, that our purpose is not to distinguish those that seem compatible [from] those that seem incompatible with a certain example of grandfatherly experience— but instead to rank them in terms of goodness of fit with that experience, without prejudice to how they might or might not fit other examples. Would it be a useful exercise to explore this problem a bit more in an effort to learn more about the thinking of the philosophers in question?

I reply

I think Plato wouldn’t understand the question. Aristotle has a theory of human action that appeals to how various aspects of the psyche affect one another. I don’t see any reason why anything he says would be incompatible with someone’s doing something and describing it as John did—as an inference that just seems right, yet could turn out to be mistaken. (Aristotle allows for inferences and for mistakes.) About Berkeley, I have little to say. He himself thought that esse est percipi was compatible with ordinary human doings, described in the ordinary way.

Locke is too tough. He has a notion of abstraction (to explain how we can get beyond the particular thing before us and talk about kinds of things) that I find difficult to present a case for. Reading Locke is like eating Grapenuts. I pass.

Hume’s views on the ‘principle of connexion,’ by means of which our ideas are related to one another would be worth looking at but I can’t summarize them. Although Hume talks of other philosophers believing this or that, and of their being unable to explain things as well as the author of A Treatise of Human Nature, the distinction between philosophy and psychology (considered as an empirical enterprise) simply didn’t exist for him, so that anything one might say about Hume, the philosopher, should be said with the understanding that philosophy encompassed far more fields of study between 1711 and 1776, than it now does. Still, Hume himself performed no experiments or observations; the form of his explanations are fairly Kantian: given this, there must be that, even though we experience only the ‘this.’

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/hume/#Ass

Davidson: see ‘Actions, Reasons and Causes,’ 1963. (I really don’t expect anyone to.)

The philosopher whose investigations and burrowings deal most clearly with the question at hand is Wittgenstein. I’d say that if one were to rank philosophical predilictions in terms of fit, it would be Wittgenstein first, the rest nowhere. Yet Wittgenstein himself always claimed that he had no theory. ‘Do you think I have a theory!’

Why do I think Wittgenstein’s thought (which really can’t be paraphrased, summarized, or assembled in outline form) has the best fit?

I’ll transcribe some passages tomorrow. The Celtics lost. My eyes are dim.

Robert Paul
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