[lit-ideas] Re: The Immanuel

 
 
And maxim-following.
 
-- We are discussing Kant's idea that there is a set of maxims one may or  
may not follow. Erin's mother, and Grice, referred to this as a 'manual' -- the 
 
"Immanuel". 
 
In a message dated 9/28/2004 10:29:25 AM Eastern Standard Time,  
erin.holder@xxxxxxxxxxx writes:
I was  under the impression that one isn't supposed to follow one's maxims.
One is  supposed to follow practical laws, that is, only those maxims that
are  universalizable.  I thought maxims, strictly speaking, were  mere
practical principles and that practical principles are subjective,  "when the
condition is regarded by the subject as holding only for his  will" (Book I,
I. Definition)

"Within a pathologically affected  will** of a rational being there can be
found a conflict of maxims with the  practical laws cognized by himself.  For
example, someone can make it  his maxim to let no insult pass unavenged and
yet at the same time see that  this is no practical law but only his maxim -
that, on the contrary, as  being in one and the same maxim a rule for the
will of every rational being  it could not harmonize with itself" (Chapter I,
remark)

**  pathologically - dependent upon sensibility.

There are categorical  imperatives and hypothetical imperatives, but maxims
aren't even  imperatives, I thought?


-----
 
Well, no. It is my impression that maxims _are_ hypothetical imperatives,  
with a constant protasis -- having to do with 'prudence'. That's why he also  
refers to them as 'counsels of prudence', as opposed to 'technical imperatives' 
 
proper, which don't have this restriction.
 
In the end, it is a maxim which gets universalizable, and morally the right  
thing to follow -- so I don't think there is such a contrast, in Kant, between 
 the maxim-following behaviour and the ethically approved behaviour.
 
Note that if these things were of such _minimal_ importance to Kant, he  
wouldn't call the _MAXims_.
 
Cheers,

JL



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