[lit-ideas] Re: Sunday's Revelation

  • From: Henninge@xxxxxxxxxxx (Richard Henninge)
  • To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 30 Sep 2004 10:39:04 +0200

----- Original Message -----
From: "Robert Paul" <Robert.Paul@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Thursday, September 30, 2004 8:01 AM
Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Sunday's Revelation


> Richard re-translates Kant, setting straight the anonymous rendering Erin
> provided:
>
> >From this we can understand how consciousness of this ability of a pure
> practical reason can IN DEED (i.e. THROUGH THE ACT) (the virtue) produce
> consciousness of mastery over one's inclinations, hence of independence
from
> them and so too from the discontent that always accompanies them, and thus
can
> produce a negative satisfaction with one's state, that is, contentment
which in
> its source is contentment with one's person.
>
> Question. Are the first two capitalized words (IN DEED) meant to be
separated?
> If so, this is barbarous English. If they are not meant to be
separated--if they
> are meant to form the word 'indeed,' then the following 'i.e.' makes
little
> sense.
>

Yes, the two capitalized words (IN DEED) were meant to be separated. As in,
I'm afraid, too much of what I write, I have employed a bit of intellectual
shorthand to make a point (and the point is thus ignored because nobody can
read my shorthand). The Erin-quoted translation essentially used "indeed"
(written together) by saying "in fact." I wanted to point out that the sense
is not "in fact," but literally "in the deed," which means in the
performance of actions, deeds (in this case the virtuous deeds, virtuous
actions, i.e. being virtuous, actively). The English expression "indeed" has
lost his original emphasis on action--and therefore is now incorrect as a
translation of "durch Tat." German _does_ have "in der Tat," which _can_ be
translated "in fact," or "indeed," but that's not what Kant said. The Abbott
translation catches it nicely enough by saying "by action (virtue)," though
he (she?) forgets to say "can produce," i.e. "we can understand how the
consciousness of this faculty of a pure practical reason *can produce by
action (virtue)* etc.

You know me, Robert. I'm a little miffed at this translation, and I ask
again: Is it me or is there a significant error in every paragraph of
translated Kant? I don't select these paragraphs: The good people of
Lit-Ideas, like Erin here, give me a chance to look at the translation--and
there they go again, roughly translating and distorting the meaning! That
virtue is the *act* by which this consciousness of mastery over one's
inclinations *can* come about is certainly one of the most important
arguments of this sentence--and the translation Erin cited elided it,
gracefully, non-barbarously, but inexactly.

But I must admit that this is fun. Bring me another section. I'm hungry to
be virtuous.

Richard Henninge
University of Mainz

> Here is T. K. Abbott's translation of the same passage:
>
> >From this we can understand how the consciousness of this faculty of a
pure
> practical reason produces by action (virtue) a consciousness of mastery
over
> one's inclinations, and therefore of independence of them, and
consequently also
> of the discontent that always accompanies them, and thus a negative
satisfaction
> with one's state,  i.e., contentment, which is primarily contentment with
one's
> own person.
>
> T. K. wrote it in 1873, almost certainly by hand, no doubt with a quill
pen. He
> seems to have avoided the anonymous translator's mistakes Richard has
called our
> attention to. No doubt he has made others. However, he was writing
sixty-nine
> years after Kant's death and had no one to encumber him with help.
>
> Robert Paul
> The Reed Institute
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