Walter wrote: "All ethical maxims are open to moral assessment." True, but not all ethical maxims will, upon moral assessment, result in moral maxims. The standard, given by Kant and Habermas, for moral assessment arriving at moral maxims is very demanding and so most often there can be no moral maxim. Returning to the example I gave earlier, walking to work might be a good thing but this goodness does not rise to the level of 'oughtness'. The vast majority of our ethical activities are of this kind. Walter continues: "Moreover, and I don't think H. would disagree with me or Kant on this, 'oughtness' adheres to all our actions, willings and judgments in the sense that one of the following categories applies transcendentally to all of them: morally permissible, or impermissible (entailing an obligation to refrain from acting on such maxims.)." This is simply not the case. Kant explicitly distinguishes between public and private reason where private reason does not rise to the level of 'oughtness'. According to Kant, private reason draws on an authority other than reason itself. On this account, the vast majority of our actions, willings and judgments could not be open to the application of moral categories. Think how often we do things because they are useful, helpful, healthy, pleasurable, desirable, usw. Habermas' criteria are even more demanding requiring both participation of those involved as well as the appropriate means of application. I would be curious to know how the category morally permissible, or impermissible, applies transcendentally to the act of walking to work resulting in a moral maxim. Walter continues: "'Moral rightness' is a 'justification-immanent' concept for H. What 'moral wrongness' means for H is the 'fact' that the maxim under consideration does not meet approval under epistemic conditions of symmetry and reciprocity." I assume then that you would distinguish between 'morally impermissible', a judgment arrived at through the satisfaction of the above epistemic conditions, and 'moral wrongness', a judgment that covers every act that does not satisfy the above epistemic conditions. However, the logic of determining all acts failing to rise to the level of moral determination as themselves having a moral quality, i.e. moral wrongness, strikes me as being a bit wobbly. The set of acts not morally justified includes actions like my walking to work, using a pencil instead of a pen for writing my notes and murder. The first two examples strike me as being morally neutral while the third would come under your category of 'morally impermissible'. The actions not included under the category of 'ought' strike me as being too numerous and too diverse to be meaningfully described under any single category apart from the less-than-helpful name of 'not-ought'. Walter again: "What is the difference between being 'offended' and feeling 'resentment' at an other's disregard for the autonomy and dignity of an individual?" The difference is fundamental. To be offended is to passionately acknowledge that a standard or law has been violated while to be resentful is to feel that oneself has been injured or harmed. Walter once more: "The "material" for practical reason appears for rational deliberation under the conditions of universalization (Kant) or the epistemic conditions of discourse (Habermas.)" I am not sure how you are disagreeing with me. On your account here, the 'material' is distinct from the process of practical reason. I described this as non-rational. In order to account for the fact that there is an appropriateness between this 'material' and the process of practical reason, I described the 'material' as moral intuition. Perhaps the word 'intuition' carries with it all sorts of baggage within moral philosophy, but I think it is a good word in this case. Again, my point is that the formal machinery of practical reason requires the grist of moral intuitions harvested from our experience of being offended. Habermas explicitly describes how moral discourse requires the input of insights from the lifeworld and Kant implies as much. The autonomy you refer to does not apply to, what I refer to as, moral intuitions but rather the procedure by which those intuitions are transformed into norms. Practical reason is a formal procedure that has to engage the world of experience both in the material for consideration and in its application. Both Kant and Habermas acknowledge that this engagement with the world occurs at those places were we intuit, again my word, transgressions against the moral law. Without these relationships, practical reason would not be practical and therefore betray itself. Sincerely, Phil Enns Yogyakarta, Indonesia ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html