[etni] Fw: re: grammar question

  • From: "Ask_Etni" <ask@xxxxxxxx>
  • To: "ETNI" <etni@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Fri, 9 Oct 2009 00:31:28 +0200

----- Original Message ----- 
From: Judy Freedman - judyfreedman@xxxxxxxxx
Subject: Re: grammar question

here we go...
The answer is "wrote" because the book is finished and the action is 
complete.
You can say "DB has just written another book" =it's fresh on the shelves.
(Actually my husband bought it and I wish he would finish it soon because I 
have nothing to read. But that is totally irrelevant).
If you say DB has written many books, you are implying he will write more.

"I saw that movie" = you would say this if there is not much more to add. 
i.e. "I saw 'Bambi' when I was 7 years old". "I've seen that movie" is 
calling for discussion/opinion on it. "I've seen 'Bambi' many times and 
discover something new each time - using HOTS of course".

Have you ever tried explaining this to 8th grade? Did you ever try 
explaining this to 8th grade?
What's the difference?
Chag sameach
Judy


You wrote:
>While other people are helping all of us with what really matters, such as
HOTS, CDs, and payment issues, here I come to this list again with another
"trivial" question about the "present perfect". I wouldn't be asking if I
understood the answer given in the answer key of the grammar book I'm taking
my question from. Thank you in advance for giving this time and thought.
>Question: "wrote" or "has written" (and why)
>Dan Brown ....................... "The Da Vinci Code". I haven't bought it 
>yet.
>I say the answer is "has written" because there is no specification of past
time. Right? Why is this different from "I have seen that movie?"



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