[bksvol-discuss] Re: OK, gang, got a weird one!

  • From: "Donna Goodin" <goodindo@xxxxxxx>
  • To: <bksvol-discuss@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Mon, 13 Jul 2009 21:40:33 -0400

You are absolutely correct Roger.  

 

My doctoral specialization was in medieval Spanish.  What happened was that 
what today would be a b in a word like “estaaba” would have often been written 
as “estava”—remember that during that time, spelling was not uniform.  This is 
very complicated, because in Spanish the V and the B sounds are not as 
dissimilar as they are in English.  Even today, Spanish speakers who are poorly 
educated use V instead of B.  What happened in early modern times, was that  
texts were copied by scribes.  So, in addition to spelling variants, the simple 
differences in one’s hand-writing would make it fairly easy for a V to seem 
more like a U, especially to a scanner, in a situation where a modern-day 
printing is trying to duplicate antique script.

 

So, when I was citing these texts in my dissertation, my sighted faculty could 
always tell the difference.  Hence what I said earlier about applying 
dissertation rules.

Cheers,

Donna

 

From: bksvol-discuss-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
[mailto:bksvol-discuss-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of Rogerbailey81@xxxxxxx
Sent: Monday, July 13, 2009 7:18 PM
To: bksvol-discuss@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: [bksvol-discuss] Re: OK, gang, got a weird one!

 

I don't think it was universal. Germanic script, even though using a Roman 
alphabet, was significantly different. English, even though it was a Germanic 
language itself, used a Latinate script as a hangover from the Norman conquest. 
Also, that s instead of an f was not really an s. It looked very similar to an 
s and I imagine that might have something to do with it being changed, but if 
you could see it you would be able to tell it from an s. I did not make a habit 
of looking at antiquated English scripts before I lost my eyesight, so I don't 
remember about the u and v, but I would suspect that that u was not quite a u 
either. That could be settled, though, by someone with eyesight just taking a 
look at it and telling us.

                                                          "If you tremble with 
indignation at every injustice then you are a comrade of mine." Che Guevara     

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Subj: 
[bksvol-discuss] Re: OK, gang, got a weird one!   
Date: 
7/13/2009 3:50:29 PM Eastern Daylight Time  
From: 
kimfri11@xxxxxxxxxxx  
Reply-to: 
bksvol-discuss@xxxxxxxxxxxxx  
To: 
bksvol-discuss@xxxxxxxxxxxxx  
Sent from the Internet 
(Details) 
table end

Hi, gang, Just a comment from Kim here. During the seventeenth century, the 
word "wave" would be spelled W-A-u-e. I also noticed that in the eighteenth
century, the letter S would be written with a letter F. Apparently what 
happened with old Spanish affected Early modern English as well. H'mm! I wonder
if this orthography was universal throughout western Europe? Regards, Kim aka 
Ellinder.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

From: bksvol-discuss-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
[mailto:bksvol-discuss-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of Donna Goodin
Sent: Monday, July 13, 2009 11:09 AM
To: bksvol-discuss@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: [bksvol-discuss] OK, gang, got a weird one!

Hi all, 

I’m working on The Lady in Blue by Javier Sierra.  At the end of the book is a 
document written in old Spanish.  Some of the “abnormalities” are standard
orthographic conventions of the period, things like using the letter u where in 
modern Spanish there would be a V.  others are the result of the font. 
So, for instance,  the letter S looks like an F.  This also is typical of 
period texts.  My question: Should I correct/modernize it, or should I leave
it?  One option would be to correct font issues, but leave the period 
orthography intact.   There is an English translation following the Spanish 
text. 

I appreciate any input. 

Thanks,

Donna

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