[argyllcms] Re: Using an i1 to measure FWA content?

Gerhard Fuernkranz wrote:

Well, if we'd assume that the filtered light does not contain any energy
below 400nm or 420nm, then basically we would have to discard the
readings for these wavelengths completely, as they would be the result
of a zero by zero division (no light multiplied by the reflectance of
the sample (+ noise), divided by no light multiplied by the reflectance
of the reference tile (+ noise)). 

This could well be the case, especially as it's an incandescent source
and has less energy in the blue to start with. But in theory there
is no need to be zero, it just needs to be a lot less than the
illumination level used at the emission wavelengths, so in theory
the short wavelengths could be measured in spite of the UV filter.

Graeme Gill.

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