[accessibleimage] Re: [Art_beyond_sight_theory_and_research] Molyneaux's question rephrased
- From: Simon Hayhoe <simon_hayhoe@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: Art Beyond Sight Theory and Research <art_beyond_sight_theory_and_research@xxxxxxxxxx>, accessibleimage@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Sun, 3 Sep 2006 22:11:33 +0000 (GMT)
Hi Lisa,j
Interesting question, one which I have addressed in the book I am currently
writing.
In brief, to understand Molyneux's question to Locke, you must realise its
history. Locke was trying to show that there are no inherent thoughts and that
all things are learnt. Gregory's findings appreared to confirm this. SB at
first could not tell by sight that which he had touched. However, after a while
he learnt to transfer the cognitions from his previous touch perceptions to his
new sighted ones, after he had experienced both together. This indicates that
he learnt what he was seeing by building cognitive pathways from his previous
experiences. Gregory called this Cross Modal Transfer (CMT). Berkley, in the
early 18th century found much the same thing, as did Oliver Sacks after
Gregory. I know the John (K) whom I have copied in has a very different take on
this situation, and believes we have inherent ability in this area, which needs
to be released through learning skills, much as Chomsky believed in an inherent
Generative Grammar of language. If anyone is
interested, I have added two relevant, VERY ROUGH chapters for your purusal on
this subject which will add to the debate.
If anything, I would feel that, inherent or not, all senses rely on eachother.
See particularly the research of Charles Spence from Oxford University. Neither
is more important, although sight of course has more social and cultural value
to all of us.
As ever, Best wishes and cheers,
Simon
----- Original Message ----
From: Lisa Yayla <fnugg@xxxxxxxxx>
To: accessibleimage@xxxxxxxxxxxxx; Art Beyond Sight Theory and Research
<art_beyond_sight_theory_and_research@xxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Sunday, 3 September, 2006 2:29:52 PM
Subject: [Art_beyond_sight_theory_and_research] Molyneaux's question rephrased
Hi,
Following are some questions I have about touch and sight. Would
appreciate any feedback, thoughts
In the paper "Recovery from Early Blindness" by Richard Gregory he
describes a man, S.B, gaining vision at the age of 51. Shortly after the
operation he draws pictures from what Gregory calls "touch memory" and
is able to understand objects through vision alone and not touching
them, though they are objects he has known from touch when blind (clock
on wall and written letters). This again touch memory. In his pictures
though he does not enter features which he "had not known previously by
touch".
This seems to answer differently than John Locke's answer to Molyneaux
However S.B had difficulty recognizing faces and facial expressions.
This is also the case for Michael May (blind and regained sight) that he
has difficulty with understanding faces and facial expressions. I was
thinking that perhaps the explanation to this is that facial
expressions, body language are something done "on the fly", there is
movement involved and this is something one can not experience with
touch. Transition of expression involves movement.
In lieu of this would it not seem fair to rephrase Molyneaux problem to:
"If a blind person gains sight will that person, soon after gaining
sight, understand an object from sight alone not having experienced it
by touch from before?"
and/or Could this be compared to an archaeologist who uncovers an object
and doesn't know what it is?
The idea being that touch is very important for sight
Is perhaps sight the "servant" of touch? That sight discovers things
for us to touch? The original object of development is to touch and
verify? Is sight the ability to "touch" at a distance? That sight
develops from touch? Sight developed to be able to touch farther away
then the lengths of our arms?
Thanks,
Lisa
http://www.richardgregory.org/
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